(1) Therefore you have no excuse, O man, every one of you who judges. For in passing judgment on another you condemn yourself, because you, the judge, practice the very same things.
[Rom1:18-32 is possibly referring to Gentiles who are mainly pagan worshippers. Although, i think, it can be extended to all men.
Here, 'you' refers to the Jews, that if the section prior to this refer to Gentiles, because the Jews have the written code and revelation from God (and therefore know 'that the judgement of God rightly falls on those who practice such things.'Rom2:2), and therefore judge the Gentiles, but nonetheless true that they themselves are sinners and practice the very same things.]
(2) We know that the judgment of God rightly falls on those who practice such things.
(3) Do you suppose, O man--you who judge those who practice such things and yet do them yourself--that you will escape the judgment of God?
[Hypothizing 2 situations.
Is it even possible to escape God's judgement because we judge others, even though we practice the very same things?
If it is possible, then there exist the riches of His kindness and forbearance and patience. However, is it not meant to lead us to repentance?
either ways, impending doom is before us, unless we repent.]
(4) Or do you presume on the riches of his kindness and forbearance and patience, not knowing that God's kindness is meant to lead you to repentance?
(5) But because of your hard and impenitent heart you are storing up wrath for yourself on the day of wrath when God's righteous judgment will be revealed.
(6) He will render to each one according to his works:
(7) to those who by patience in well-doing seek for glory and honor and immortality, he will give eternal life;
[It may seem salvation by works.
Strong assumption: in seeking God's glory and honor and immortality, it is seeking God and His righteousness, and in such desire therefore will be revealed to him and transform him.
However, does this mean that a person is able to seek after these things but do not know Christ? If yes, does this mean he is saved? If no, then how do we justify this passage?
or is this pursuit totally IMPOSSIBLE without Christ/God (in the case of OT). Consider Job, who did not have the Law.
Perhaps, in desiring these things, God reveals Himself. or does God reveals Himself then 1 would desire these things?
Whatever it is, Paul is not establishing the above argument, he is stating that who will be given eternal life and who will not be, in a general sense.]
(8) but for those who are self-seeking and do not obey the truth, but obey unrighteousness, there will be wrath and fury.
[Am I doing these things in Christ?
What if I am not? Does it render me to destruction?
Check out Rom6.
Because I am in Christ, it seems an illogical choice to continue in sin.]
(9) There will be tribulation and distress for every human being who does evil, the Jew first and also the Greek,
(10) but glory and honor and peace for everyone who does good, the Jew first and also the Greek.
(11) For God shows no partiality.
[To clear any superiority among the Jews who think they are children of Abraham and are therefore saved. God shows no partiality.]
(12) For all who have sinned without the law will also perish without the law, and all who have sinned under the law will be judged by the law.
[Here Paul writes about accessibility to the written law that of which the Jews enjoyed for God revealed to them through the Law He gave by writing them on the tablets.
'sinned without the law will also perish without the law...' In view that not one is righteous (rom 3), all men have sinned with or without the law and thus be judged/perish... and we know, therefore that only in Christ we are saved... does this imply that people who have not heard the Gospel will perish without the law?
Or can this verse here supplement his argument in the next verse and the above proposal is invalid/out of context?]
(13) For it is not the hearers of the law who are righteous before God, but the doers of the law who will be justified.
[Doers and not mere hearers...
A reminder to the Jews that having the law does not make them righteous, but those who obey it and therefore, even if Gentiles who do not have the law and do what the law requires, they too are righteous!
in the same way, Gentiles who do not obey the law will likewise perish without the law.
Thus, this verse can be used to argue that the verse preceding this is a supplement to this verse rather than to imply all men who have never heard to Gospel will perish. (still inconclusive (I feel)...why?)
But then again, Paul qualified that there are some without the law, then how can they be 'doers' of the law? next verse.]
(14) For when Gentiles, who do not have the law, by nature do what the law requires, they are a law to themselves, even though they do not have the law.
[Paul proposes that even if Gentiles do not have the written law given by God to the Jews and yet by nature do what the law requires, in that sense they have the law although they do not have the law. and this shows that...]
(15) They show that the work of the law is written on their hearts, while their conscience also bears witness, and their conflicting thoughts accuse or even excuse them
[God has cause the work of the law written on their hearts, the conscience (is somewhat their memory of their actions? when doing bad, feel awful and in doing good, the sense of achievement and purpose?) bear witness to their actions while their thoughts (rationalising?) would accuse or excuse them (plaintiff and defendents).
But again, how do we define this law? Is it an absolute law that is set by God? or is it a law that is defined by every culture (since nobody really want to do bad, but all has done bad, but does he really intend to do bad on purpose, just to see others crash and burn and cause chaos like the Joker? therefore, in others' light it seems bad, but to him, he feels right
But Paul argues in the verse before that 'by nature do what the law requires' - evidently qualifying that there IS a law...and all men subscribe to that law in their conscience.]
(16) on that day when, according to my gospel, God judges the secrets of men by Christ Jesus.
(17) But if you call yourself a Jew and rely on the law and boast in God
[But if a Jew, who rely on everything that God chose to reveal to them and is capable of passing on that knowledge to those who need them...]
(18) and know his will and approve what is excellent, because you are instructed from the law;
(19) and if you are sure that you yourself are a guide to the blind, a light to those who are in darkness,
(20) an instructor of the foolish, a teacher of children, having in the law the embodiment of knowledge and truth--
(21) you then who teach others, do you not teach yourself? While you preach against stealing, do you steal?
[are you not a hypocrite? do you not sin like they (Gentiles) do?]
(22) You who say that one must not commit adultery, do you commit adultery? You who abhor idols, do you rob temples?
(23) You who boast in the law dishonor God by breaking the law.
(24) For, as it is written, "The name of God is blasphemed among the Gentiles because of you."
(25) For circumcision indeed is of value if you obey the law, but if you break the law, your circumcision becomes uncircumcision.
[Paul summarizes his argument of Rom 2.
Even though the Jews may have the law and circumcision and everything outwards, but have broke the law, then everything outwards that was given is reversed in value. for the purpose of circumcision is to set aside for God's people who would reflect His glory and righteousness.
therefore, for those who were uncircumcised but yet kept the law, are they not circumcised in that they are set aside for God. But how are they circumcised if their foreskin is not removed?
it is the matter of the heart (v28-29)]
(26) So, if a man who is uncircumcised keeps the precepts of the law, will not his uncircumcision be regarded as circumcision?
(27) Then he who is physically uncircumcised but keeps the law will condemn you who have the written code and circumcision but break the law.
(28) For no one is a Jew who is merely one outwardly, nor is circumcision outward and physical.
[For no one is a Christian who is merely one outwardly, nor is church/family (which is seen to make you Christian) outward and physical.
Paul is regarding again the 'oracles of God' that were revealed to the Jews. and in this regard, Paul is paving the way for the later part in Romans.]
(29) But a Jew is one inwardly, and circumcision is a matter of the heart, by the Spirit, not by the letter. His praise is not from man but from God.
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